Originally posted by Voltron
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Since we can say that language may not be the answer to all, how can we say that they werent indeed Greeks that spoke Macedonian ?
Why is that not a possiblity ?
Why is that not a possiblity ?
How can we also disregard the Bulgarians in the region ? No doubt the Macedonians as well. Its all relative in the area we live in.
It may have been a Macedonian state, but from what I know Tsar Samuil identified himself as a Bulgarian. Pls correct me if im wrong.
How is Macedonia historically Macedonian ? There has been so many movements in the Balkans its hard to tell what was historically what and when. Anybody can pick a certain timeline in history and use it to reinforce their position.
Speaking of Vlachs, I hear them mentioned so many times but does anybody know that is a blanket term ? Many people learned Latin during the Roman Empire. Vlachs have been assimilated to each respective country they live in. They have as much right as the next Greek or Macedonian to declare that region as theirs. Probably even more so.
So according to this, there was never any Bulgarians ? How does one go about to differentiate ?
I agree with you that many of their subjects werent Bulgarian. But how do we know who thought of themselves what at the time ?
I dont think nationalities during that era held any weight at all. We are trying to use today's method of thinking to a completely different era with different identifying factors.
Bulgarians today are just as indeginous as the modern day Greek and Macedonian. Bulgarians are more Thracian and Slav than Bulgar.
Bulgar could also have been Iranic and not Turkic.
Ancient Macedonians were a Greek tribe therefore part of our modern ethnos.
The Slavs reached Peloponnese Greece and are a component of the modern Greek ethnos.
I believe they have assimilated into us and Macedonians of today assimilated to them via language.
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