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The following is taken from a Maknews thread in which I responded. But I also want to say thanks to Jus Divinum (and any others) for bringing to light such genetic misrepresentation from a while back.
The frequency of R1a that is supposed to prove that Macedonians are Slav is unfortunately wrongly presented and even concluded (even by some experts) from the simple notion of mere perspective, thus to the detrimant of Macedonians and others who are referred to as Slavs simply becasue they speak a similar language today called Slavic.
If we were to look at the regions of all so called Slavic speakers (especially around the Balkans) then you could say sure we have Slavic admixture, although is significantly less than the supposed Slavic residences in and around Ukraine.
However if we were to expand the scope of R1a (the noted slavic characteristic) distributions to encompass the rest of the world our perspective of who is Slav drastically changes.
The so called Slavic genetic marker R1a that is supposed to prove Slavic descent of today’s Macedonians, percentage wise is similar to Germans, Greeks, and Serbians.
Strangely enough however R1a is higher among Swedes, Danish, Norwegians and others. Thus shouldn’t they correctly reference themselves as Slavs?
Further, would assimilation by so called slavs of the supposed massive migrations in the 6th century make Macedonians less viable to hold the name Macedonia, from such migrations 1500 years ago? Of course not.
The reason basically all Slavic speakers are referred today as Slavs is due to the mere simplicity of categorisation through our similar language, and not because all Slav speakers are highly correlated to one another genetically or even culturally, hence the reason why the Slavic migrations are known today by experts as a theory (a highly debatable theory) and not because of its historic certainty.
I don’t just blame the Greeks for the Slav connotation with the Macedonian ethnicity, but they however certainly and forcefully seem to continually emphasise it (especially in political circles), and without realising what it actually means. Nor realise that they themselves have similar genetics or so called Slav characteristics, but don’t seem to refer to themselves as Slav Greeks, simply because today they speak a Greek language – which confusingly seems to prove the purity of the Greeks. But then can’t explain why 100’s of Slavic place names all throughout Greece exist today, even after the policies to alter 1000's of Slavic names to Greek.
Thus begs the question (although off topic) where were the majority of the Greeks before the creation of current Greece?
The following is the world map of R1a frequency distribution (and others) to entertain your thoughts.
The frequency of R1a that is supposed to prove that Macedonians are Slav is unfortunately wrongly presented and even concluded (even by some experts) from the simple notion of mere perspective, thus to the detrimant of Macedonians and others who are referred to as Slavs simply becasue they speak a similar language today called Slavic.
If we were to look at the regions of all so called Slavic speakers (especially around the Balkans) then you could say sure we have Slavic admixture, although is significantly less than the supposed Slavic residences in and around Ukraine.
However if we were to expand the scope of R1a (the noted slavic characteristic) distributions to encompass the rest of the world our perspective of who is Slav drastically changes.
The so called Slavic genetic marker R1a that is supposed to prove Slavic descent of today’s Macedonians, percentage wise is similar to Germans, Greeks, and Serbians.
Strangely enough however R1a is higher among Swedes, Danish, Norwegians and others. Thus shouldn’t they correctly reference themselves as Slavs?
Further, would assimilation by so called slavs of the supposed massive migrations in the 6th century make Macedonians less viable to hold the name Macedonia, from such migrations 1500 years ago? Of course not.
The reason basically all Slavic speakers are referred today as Slavs is due to the mere simplicity of categorisation through our similar language, and not because all Slav speakers are highly correlated to one another genetically or even culturally, hence the reason why the Slavic migrations are known today by experts as a theory (a highly debatable theory) and not because of its historic certainty.
I don’t just blame the Greeks for the Slav connotation with the Macedonian ethnicity, but they however certainly and forcefully seem to continually emphasise it (especially in political circles), and without realising what it actually means. Nor realise that they themselves have similar genetics or so called Slav characteristics, but don’t seem to refer to themselves as Slav Greeks, simply because today they speak a Greek language – which confusingly seems to prove the purity of the Greeks. But then can’t explain why 100’s of Slavic place names all throughout Greece exist today, even after the policies to alter 1000's of Slavic names to Greek.
Thus begs the question (although off topic) where were the majority of the Greeks before the creation of current Greece?
The following is the world map of R1a frequency distribution (and others) to entertain your thoughts.
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