Risto Stefov - Articles, Translations & Collaborations

[Dimko-piperkata]

our FACTS are only the tip of the iceberg.

the highly strong fact are hidden in istanbul, vatican, russia and certainly also all involved countries from the time we were occupied by the roman empire 168 bc till nowadays.

[Dimko-piperkata]

our FACTS are only the tip of the iceberg.

the highly strong fact are hidden in istanbul, vatican, russia and certainly also all involved countries from the time we were occupied by the roman empire 168 bc till nowadays.

[Dimko-piperkata]

here´s another great video from Hans Lothar Steppan

Hans Lothar Steppan - Macedonia and their enemies
YouTube - Hans Lothar Steppan - Macedonia and their enemies

[Dimko-piperkata]

Many Modern Greeks believe Macedonia belongs only to Greece

Risto Stefov
October 13, 2008
Before 1913 there was one Macedonia, the one and only 100% Macedonia. Now according to the Greeks there is a smaller Macedonia. This Macedonia is 51% of the original Macedonia and is now known as "Makedonia". Again, according to the Greeks, this "Makedonia" belongs to Greece and there is no other Macedonia.

If Macedonia was 100% in 1913 and 51% of Macedonia was occupied and annexed by the Greeks then what happened to the other 49% of Macedonia? Did it vanish?

If you cut Macedonia into three pieces, the three pieces are still Macedonia, just as if you cut an apple into three pieces it is still an apple, three pieces of the same apple! In other words, three pieces of Macedonia is still Macedonia! Now if you wish to identify each piece individually then you can call them A, B and C. If A is called Macedonia what should B and C be called? According to the Greeks however, if A is called Macedonia then B and C are not Macedonia´s and therefore cannot be called Macedonia!

If "Macedonia is Greek" then 100% of all of the original Macedonia must also be Greek. So why aren´t the Greeks making claims to all of Macedonia. Why did the Greeks sign the 1913 Treaty of Bucharest agreeing to divide Macedonia giving Serbia and Bulgaria 49% of it if all of Macedonia was Greek? Why indeed! Is it because Macedonia is NOT and NEVER was Greek?

Clearly if Macedonia is divided into three parts then all three parts would still be called Macedonia. Right? If the Greeks choose to call their part Makedonia, to identify it as "a part of Macedonia that belongs to Greece", then shouldn´t the other partners of the 1913 Treaty of Bucharest also have the right to call their part of Macedonia whatever they want? Isn´t the Republic of Macedonia part of the original Macedonia? Why do the Greeks make it sound as if it isn´t?

Just for the record, all Macedonians call their homeland Macedonia and distinguish each part by calling it "Aegean Macedonia" when referring to the Greek occupied part of Macedonia, "Vardar Macedonia" when referring to the former Serbian occupied part of Macedonia now independent and referred to as the Republic of Macedonia and "Pirin Macedonia" when referring to the Bulgarian part of occupied Macedonia.

The Greeks claim the name Macedonia is historically Greek but in reality look what the Greeks have done with it over the years:

When Macedonia was first divided between Greece, Serbia and Bulgaria in 1913 and Greece annexed 51% of it, the Greeks called it the "New Territories". NOT Makedonia!!

The Serbians called their part "Vardarska Binovina". "Vardarska Binovina" is the name the Serbs gave to their part of Macedonia when they made it a province of Serbia! So if there are any Greeks out there who are still confused about where the name "Vardarska Binovina" comes from, it is the name the Serbians (one of Macedonia´s occupiers), gave to their part of occupied Macedonia!

In 1935 the Greeks renamed their 51% of Macedonia to "Northern Greece". NOT Makedonia!!

Then as Yugoslavia started to disintegrate in the late 1980´s and the REAL Macedonians were about to declare their independence from Yugoslavia, Greece again in 1988 renamed their 51% of Macedonia to "Makedonia", claiming it to be the ONLY Macedonia in existence and historically belonging to Greece! Didn´t Greece just annex 51% of Macedonia in 1913 for the first time ever? What "historically" are they talking about?

Greece had its chance to call its northern province "Makedonia" from 1913 to 1989 but chose not to. They chose not to because they were all too busy trying to erase the name and eradicate its existence!

Why did Greece choose to call it "Makedonia" only after the REAL Macedonians started calling their own state Republic of Macedonia? Only the Greek "godfathers" can truly answer this question but if you ask me I would say they were attempting to lay claim to the Macedonian lands and heritage before the real Macedonians had a chance!



Worse yet, why is Greece objecting to the real Macedonians calling their state, Republic of Macedonia? Because if the name Macedonia surfaces and is not Greek, people may question. Who are these Macedonians all of a sudden? And why were the Greeks saying all along that Macedonians don´t exist?

How can the Greeks have a Macedonia and the Macedonians cannot have a Macedonia? Is this some sort of Greek logic that only the Greeks can understand?

Since the Republic of Macedonia was part of the original Macedonia why are the Greeks objecting to it being called Republic of Macedonia?

How can Macedonia be historically Greek and not Macedonian? Could it be because they are illegally holding lands and people that don´t belong to them? Didn´t the Greeks invade, occupy, partition and annex Macedonia? Didn´t they take 51% of it by force from the Macedonians in 1913?

When will the Greeks come to their senses and stop making such ridiculous claims?

The truth is Macedonia was never historically Greek. Macedonia was forcefully invaded, occupied and partitioned by Greece, Serbia and Bulgaria during the 1912, 1913 Balkan Wars. After signing the 1913 Treaty of Bucharest, 51% of Macedonia was given to Greece, 39% was given to Serbia and 10% was given to Bulgaria. This was done against the wishes of the Macedonian people who, since Macedonia´s occupation and partition, have fought for their rights. Macedonians fought for their rights during World War II and during the Greek Civil War. While the part of Macedonia under Serbian/Yugoslav control won its freedom and was declared a People´s Republic of Macedonia in 1945 under the Yugoslav federation, the parts under Greek and Bulgarian control remained occupied and the Macedonian people in those countries are without even the most basic human rights.

Greece is refusing to recognize the existence of a Macedonia beyond its own borders to hide the fact that;

Macedonia was partitioned by force in 1913 i.e. its armies fought to gain control of Macedonian territories.

Greece has occupied and is holding 51% of Macedonian lands that don´t belong to it.

Greece has exiled hundreds of thousands of ethnic Macedonians, including 28,000 refugee children and will not allow them to return. Reasons not given.

Greece has illegally expropriated properties belonging to Macedonians for which no compensation was made.

Greece has committed atrocities against the Macedonian civilian population during the 1912, 1913 Balkans Wars and during the 1946 to 1949 Greek Civil War and does not want the world to know about them.

Greece is refusing to recognize the indigenous ethnic Macedonian population living inside or outside of its borders.

Here is a history lesson for the Greeks:

The Ancient Macedonians defeated the Ancient so-called Greeks at Chaeronea in 338 BC and subjugated them from which they never recovered. The largest so-called Greek City States, including Athens, were occupied by Macedonian garrisons until 197 BC when they were freed and again re-occupied by the Romans. The so-called Ancient Greeks never set foot on Macedonian soil!

Since their defeat in 338 BC the so-called Ancient Greek City States, including Sparta, were politically subordinate to the Macedonians and for over 140 years were under Macedonian control.

So historically speaking which is more correct, "Macedonia is Greek" or Greece is Macedonian?

The truth unfortunately matters not for the Greeks when it doesn´t serve their interests!

You can contact the author at rstefov@hotmail.com

http://www.americanchronicle.com/articles/77594

[Risto the Great]

Macedonia has more of a claim on Greece than the other way around.
This is why the Greeks keep trying to claim it.

[Pelister]

The other things to add is that in all its dealing with Yugoslavia, Greece referred to Macedonia as the "Socialist Republic of Macedonia".

[Svoliani]

' Greece again in 1988 renamed their 51% of Macedonia to "Makedonia"

Once again i go to my trusted bible, my 1974 Funk & Wagnalls New Encyclopedia and looking at a map of Greece i clearly see Macedonia listed as a province along with Thrace and Epirus etc etc.
No signs of 'New Territories or Northern Greece' anywhere.
I really need to get a new Encyclopedia set

[Traveller]

Originally Posted by Pelister

The other things to add is that in all its dealing with Yugoslavia, Greece referred to Macedonia as the "Socialist Republic of Macedonia".

No we didnt. We just accepted that in regional summits your province could have such a sign in front of them.

[Pelister]

I find it interesting that Strabo refers to the Macedonian Republic in ancient times as "free Macedonia"

[Daskalot]

Originally Posted by Svoliani

' Greece again in 1988 renamed their 51% of Macedonia to "Makedonia"

Once again i go to my trusted bible, my 1974 Funk & Wagnalls New Encyclopedia and looking at a map of Greece i clearly see Macedonia listed as a province along with Thrace and Epirus etc etc.
No signs of 'New Territories or Northern Greece' anywhere.
I really need to get a new Encyclopedia set

I would like to see a Greek source, is there one available from 1974 stating the same?