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Old 06-02-2009, 08:10 AM   #31
Delodephius
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I'm not going to discuss anymore on this topic. It feels like it is not going anywhere. I do not understand much if anything when it comes to genetic issues and I find them of little importance in language studies. And I fail to discuss with someone who knows little about languages and language systems, or maybe you do but you didn't show it yet. We can continue this discussion only years from now.
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This is mine or (somebody) else’s (is the way) narrow minded people count.
But for broad minded people, (whole) earth is (like their) family.
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Old 06-02-2009, 11:14 PM   #32
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My apologies, you brought a geo-linguist into the discussion and I thought it appropriate to use geo-linguistic evidence to defend my position against your objections. To continue on to a conclusion, the region where Basque is still spoken is an area that experienced cultural admixture during the Neolithic Period between Impressed Pottery Cultures and Bowl Cultures (where did impressed pottery originate in Europe?). To provide an explanation rooted in the scientific method for the similarities that researchers have found between the Basque and Caucasian languages, simply locate the earliest regions the R1b mutation has been found in (a step that only requires a basic understanding of geography and the ISOGG DNA Tree) and draw a line between where they started out and where they wound up and take into account the pre-existing population belts they migrated through over many thousands of years to get to where they are now in relation to the populations that still carry those unique identifiers. Should we drag the Iberian script into the tangled Slavomaniacal NSB web? Yes, because the scientific method has yielded a result that can be further supported using independent data sets. Beyond right or wrong are degrees of certainty that lead in one direction or the other. Those who walk a narrow path often lose their way.
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Old 06-03-2009, 12:55 AM   #33
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Slovak/Anomaly/Tomas View Post
I compared the Orkhon Turkic runes with the Proto-Bulgar script and besides few letters the scripts are quite different. Magyar runes are also quite different then the Orkhon ones yet they too are claimed to be derived from them, except few similar letters perhaps.

Many other alphabets/runic scripts existed in the Early Middle ages in Eastern Europe and the Caucasus, like the Kabardian and the Old Udi script and still today used Armenian and Georgian alphabets. There are also many short inscriptions that are undecipherable and cannot be classified. Some inscriptions are written in languages that are usually found far from the place of the inscription, like Sogdian (an Eastern Iranian language) inscriptions in Pannonia.

For the Proto-Bulgar script I found the table of letters on the Serbian Wikipedia:
http://sr.wikipedia.org/wiki/%D0%9F%...B0%D1%80%D0%B8

and the information about the script and examples of inscriptions I found here:
http://www.kroraina.com/pb_lang/index.html
There too are tables of the Proto-Bulgar script but are not of such good quality and not all letter-forms are there.

Proto-Bulgarian was Turkic, not Slavic.

I picked you for a Bulgaro-phile from the start.

This idea that Oriental looking, Turkic speaking horseman from the region of Mongolia, brought the Slavic langauge with them, is moronic to say the least. You rely on the internet too much kid, and present every piece of rubbish you find here, if it fits your political theories. Your full of shit.
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Old 06-30-2009, 06:16 PM   #34
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Default Was there an alphabet that existed before Cyril&Methodius?

A very interesting text for all to see and read in full here - http://www.archive.org/stream/histor...e/397/mode/1up




A history of the Eastern Roman empire from the fall of Irene to the accession of Basil I. (A. D. 802-867) (1912) by J.B. Bury
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Old 06-30-2009, 06:24 PM   #35
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Bury's source for this information is from this man http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vatroslav_Jagi%C4%87

Vatroslav Jagić

Vatroslav JagićVatroslav Jagić (July 6, 1838 - August 5, 1923) was a Croatian language researcher and a famous expert in the area of Slavic languages (Slavistics) in the second half of the 19th century.

He was very interested in the language of the old Slavs (staroslavenski jezik, Old Church Slavonic), concluded and proved that it did not originate in the central plains of Pannonia as most experts claimed, but in southern Macedonia.
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Old 06-30-2009, 10:54 PM   #36
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I wonder he bases this claim on.

I wonder whether there is any evidence of this alphabet in the southern part of Macedonia. It has probably been destroyed.
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Old 06-30-2009, 11:52 PM   #37
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Quote:
Second, common slavic itself may have been used as a lingua franca within and outside the Avar qaganate. This may explain, in the eyes of some linguists, the spread of this language throughout most of Eastern Europe, obliterating old dialects and langauges. It may also explain why this llanguage remained fairly stable and remarkably uniform through the ninth century, with only a small number of isoglosses that began to form before Old Church Slavonic was written down. This is also confirmed by the fact that Old Church Slavonic, a language created on the basis of a dialect spoken in Macedonia, was later understood in both Moravia and Kievan Rus.
F.Curta, The Making of the Slavs, p.345
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Old 09-01-2009, 03:11 PM   #38
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Yaroslav Kesler
This man is a doctor of chemistry who speaks 23 European languages.
Belongs to a group of intelectuals that advocates for a revision of global chronology. They argue that the real history of human civilization is much shorter than is officially adopted.
They use a multidisciplinary approach to research.
Among other things, they analyze the language as a source where we can get out evidence in support of their argument.
He have written several articles on New Chronology issue, and between them some on the language and the New Chronology.

http://www.newchrono.ru/frame1/Publ/azbuka.htm

АЗБУКА: ПОСЛАНИЕ К СЛАВЯНАМ

Ярослав Кеслер

Our Point of Interest, at the end of the whole text:

Знаменательно, что ироничные англичане называют сложные книжные слова македонскими. При этом они даже не подозревают, как близки к истине, ибо македонский - это тот же праславянский, а значит, и праевропейский язык. Просто латинизация англичан в XIV-XV вв. уничтожила видимую связь их языка с праславянским.


Translated:

It is noteworthy, that the British ironically call the complex book words - Macedonian . However, they have no idea how close they are to the truth, because the Macedonian - is the same Pra-Slavonic, and hence pra-european language. Because of the romanization in XIV-XV centuries was destroyed their apparent connection with the Slavonic language.
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Old 09-01-2009, 03:49 PM   #39
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Check out this video on Anatoly Fomenko - http://video.google.com/videosearch?...8&sa=N&tab=wv#

I don't buy this theory. However it is interesting.
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Old 07-09-2010, 08:15 AM   #40
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http://books.google.pl/books?id=2mdI...page&q&f=false
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